I have a question that I have had a hard time getting an answer to and thought I would try here.
It's in the same realm, albeit with music and video.
Youtube has a system in place to manage copyrighted music and video. If you're not aware, the system identifies copyrighted works, and if it has a deal in place with the publisher/copyright holder, then it will respond by either blocking the video, muting it, or monetizing it with ads. It's up to the publisher to choose which option with most choosing to collect royalties off of advertising.
So here is my question, is the user still on the hook for copyright infringement under this system? For example, if I made a video that used a unlicensed song but was allowed to upload it to google because the publisher agreed to collect royalties. In this scenario, the youtube video would be the only place the video would be viewed from. I could understand that it wouldn't be a blanket authorization, but something seems awfully sketchy about the legal parameters.
It's in the same realm, albeit with music and video.
Youtube has a system in place to manage copyrighted music and video. If you're not aware, the system identifies copyrighted works, and if it has a deal in place with the publisher/copyright holder, then it will respond by either blocking the video, muting it, or monetizing it with ads. It's up to the publisher to choose which option with most choosing to collect royalties off of advertising.
So here is my question, is the user still on the hook for copyright infringement under this system? For example, if I made a video that used a unlicensed song but was allowed to upload it to google because the publisher agreed to collect royalties. In this scenario, the youtube video would be the only place the video would be viewed from. I could understand that it wouldn't be a blanket authorization, but something seems awfully sketchy about the legal parameters.